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From this Scripture, where it is said, That Lamech tooke unto him two wives, it may be demanded whether Polygamy was a sinne in the time of the Law or not?
This question hath more perplexities [Resp.] twining about it then at first I thought it might have: I shall give you the opinion of learned men concerning it.
1. Some conceive, that Polygamy, was not a sinne in the time of the Law: the reasons they render are these:
Because we finde a Law made by God, as touching those who had more wives then [Arg. 1] one, as in that text, If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have borne * 1.1 him children, both the beloved, and the hated, and if the first borne sonne be hers that was hated, then it shall be, when he maketh his sonnes to inherit that which he hath, that he may not make the sonne of the beloved first-borne, before the sonne of the hated, who is indeed the first-borne: Now if the Lord makes a Law concerning those who had more wives then one, how could it then be a sin?
This is a non sequitur: we finde Laws [Resp.]